Re: [Patents] "Betrayal of physics"

[Hartmut Pilch <phm@a2e.de>]

> And what about a "mathematics-implemented invention" ?
> 
> Assume a new math theorem that would be useful in several applications. Say 
> that these applications are machines or processes ant that they work better 
> because of the use of this new math theorem in the design of the machine or 
> process. Would a patent on these new machines or processes be possible ? 

Of course, even according to fairly conservative patent doctrines.
It wouldn't be called "mathematics-implemented" but "machine-implemented".

> Would this theorem be patentable ?

Of course not the theorem as such but the machine or process that uses it.
 
> I am just trying to better understand where the limit is.

Then you need to read some court decisions, perhaps starting with Diamond 
v. Diehr, which is very well written and interesting, especially due to 
the dissenting minority opininon which is also codified in it.